Not really. The word appears in 56 verses in the Hebrew Bible—in 52 of them, it serves as the archaic/poetic Hebrew equivalent of the more familiar lahem, meaning ‘to them’.
There are two verses in the Book of Genesis (which happen to be consecutive—Gen. 9:26,27) where you might think that it’s in the singular (‘to him’):
ויאמר, ברוך יהוה אלוהי שם; ויהי כנען, עבד למו.
(vayomer, barukh Adonai Elohei Shem, vayehi Cna’an eved lamo)
which the King James Version translates as: “And he said, Blessed be the Lord God of Shem; and Canaan shall be his servant,” and:
יפת אלוהים ליפת, וישכון באוהלי-שם; ויהי כנען, עבד למו.
(Yaft Elohim leYefet, vayishkon be’ohalei-Shem, vayehi Cna’an eved lamo)
translated: “God shall enlarge Japheth, and he shall dwell in the tents of Shem; and Canaan shall be his servant.”
—but which in reality are both generic references—i.e. … ‘shall be a slave to them’ – namely, the descendants of Canaan being a slave to the descendents of Shem and of Japheth.
The other four instances are in the Book of Job (which is a fount of archaic Hebrew in general), where the word is actually /lemo/ (with the stress on “mo“)) not /lamo/) (with the stress on “la“)—meaning ‘to [my/their] own’—e.g.: Job 4:40:
הן קלוֹתי, מה אשיבך; ידי שמתי למוֹ-פי.
Hen qaloti, mah ashivekha; yadi samti lemo-phi.
Meaning: “Indeed, I am unworthy; what shall I answer thee? I shall put my hand to my own mouth.”