Bottom line: the real reason is because it sounds better to the native ear. Most linguists dislike this kind of explanation, because it has no neat, ‘rational’ basis—i.e., it doesn’t fit into a neat, predictable category—and yet it ultimately explains most, if not all, exceptions to neat rules in all languages. Thus:
Continue readingQ&A: What is the linguistic explanation for many masculine nouns in Hebrew taking the feminine plural form, and vice versa—feminine nouns taking the masculine plural form (e.g., רחובות ארוכים, דרכים ארוכות)?
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